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Federalism
and the Bill of Rights:
The Pros and Cons of Kelo
by
Roderick T. Long
by Roderick T. Long
Libertarians
are divided over the Supreme Court's decision in Kelo v. New
London to allow coerced property transfers to private parties
to count as "public use." No libertarian likes the decision as it
stands (since, for one thing, it clearly authorises an expansion
not only of State-level but of Federal eminent domain power);
the disagreement is over what the Court should have done instead.
Some libertarians (see, e.g., Richard
Epstein and Sheldon
Richman) think the Court should have protected private property
owners from this expanded assault on their rights by striking down
the New London statute; other libertarians (see, e.g., Stephan
Kinsella and Ron
Paul) think the Court should have declined, on federalist grounds,
any jurisdiction over eminent domain at the State level.
I find myself in partial agreement and disagreement with both sides.
Let me explain why.
First we need to distinguish the normative question Would it
be it a good thing for the Supreme Court to strike down the New
London statute? from the legal question Does the Constitution
authorize the Supreme Court to strike down the New London statute?
After all, there is no a priori guarantee that these two
questions must have the same answer.
Second, the normative question must be disambiguated into two further
questions: Should the Supreme Court's policy in general be one
that would lead it to strike down the New London statute? and
Given the Supreme Court's actual policy in general, would it
have been good in this instance for them to strike down the New
London statute? These questions might turn out to have distinct
answers also.
Indeed, I shall defend the following answers to these questions:
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Does
the Constitution authorize the Supreme Court to strike down
the New London statute? Yes.
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Should
the Supreme Court's policy in general be one that would lead
it to strike down the New London statute? No.
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Given
the Supreme Court's actual policy in general, would it have
been good in this instance to strike down the New London statute?
Yes.
(I'll
be drawing on arguments I've previously developed here,
here, and
here.)
Interpreting
the Constitution: A Spoonerite Approach
Let's begin with the legal question. Those who deny that the Supreme
Court had proper jurisdiction in Kelo point to the fact that
the Fifth
Amendment, which stipulates that private property not be "taken
for public use, without just compensation," was originally a restriction
solely on Congress, and had no application at the State level. This
is true enough; the question is whether Fifth Amendment protections
were subsequently extended to the States by the Fourteenth
Amendment, which forbids States to "make or enforce any law
which shall abridge the privileges or immunities of citizens of
the United States." Historical evidence suggests that the authors
of the "privileges and immunities" clause did not intend
this provision to extend the entire Bill of Rights to cover the
States; but as a Spoonerite, I think what matters for legal interpretation
is not the intention of the authors but the intention of the document.
This
distinction is one that Lysander Spooner expounds at length in his
1860 treatise The
Unconstitutionality of Slavery. A brief example should make
it clear. Consider the case from Greek mythology of Oedipus, king
of Thebes, who decrees that whoever has brought spiritual pollution
upon the city through parricide and incest must be exiled. At the
time he makes this decree, neither he nor anyone else realises that
he, Oedipus, is the man who has committed parricide and incest.
So in making this decree it is not the intention of Oedipus
that he, Oedipus, be exiled. But once the truth comes to light,
the only way to carry out the decree is to send Oedipus into exile;
hence exiling Oedipus is what Spooner would call the intention of
the decree, though not the intention of its author.
So in general, if legislators decree X without realising that X
is in fact Y, then their decree must be interpreted as requiring
Y even if the legislators never intended this. As I have written
elsewhere:
If the law says that government employees must be paid in gold,
then they may not be paid in iron pyrites, since iron pyrites
is not in fact gold, even if those who wrote the law were
ignorant of the difference. If the law says that fishermen may
not hunt mammals, then in fact the law says they may not
hunt dolphins, even if the lawmakers had thought dolphins were
fish. Likewise, if the law says that involuntary servitude is
forbidden, then the government may not conscript soldiers, since
military conscription is in fact involuntary servitude,
even if those who wrote the law did not recognize this.
Or, as Spooner
writes:
If ... the fact were historically well authenticated, that
every man in the nation had publicly asserted, within one
hour after the adoption of the constitution, (that is, within
one hour after he had, in theory, agreed to it,) that he did not
agree to it intending that any or all of the principles expressed
by the instrument should be established as law, all those assertions
would not be of the least legal consequence in the world; and
for the very sufficient reason, that what they have said in
the instrument is the law; and what they have said out of
it is no part of it, and has no legal bearing upon it. ... If
every individual, after he had agreed to a constitution, could
set up his own intentions, his own understandings of the instrument,
or his own mental reservations, in opposition to the intentions
expressed by the instrument itself, the constitution would be
liable to have as many different meanings as there were different
individuals who had agreed to it. And the consequence would be,
that it would have no obligation at all, as a mutual and binding
contract, for, very likely, no two of the whole would have understood
the instrument alike in every particular, and therefore no two
would have agreed to the same thing.
So the best
interpretation of a law may not be the one the authors intended.
Of course the authors' intent is relevant, because what their
words mean depends on what they intend; the reason their term "gold"
does not refer to iron pyrites is that they intend the term to refer
to whatever is relevantly similar in deep explanatory structure
to their paradigm samples of gold. But it is not this intention
alone, but this intention in conjunction with possibly unrecognised
facts of reality, that determines whether a particular chunk of
material counts as gold just as it is not the (conventionally
defined) rules of chess alone, but those rules in conjunction with
the actual moves and positions of the pieces on the board, that
determine whether a checkmate has occurred even if the players
fail to notice the checkmate! (I here draw on the arguments of two
philosophers who played a decisive role in overthrowing conventionalist
theories of meaning in the 1970s: Saul Kripke, in Naming
and Necessity, and Hilary Putnam, in Mind,
Language, and Reality. Interestingly, their contributions
were partly anticipated by Ayn Rand in her Introduction
to Objectivist Epistemology; on this see my article "Reference
and Necessity: A Rand-Kripke Synthesis?" forthcoming in the Journal
of Ayn Rand Studies.)
So regardless of what the authors of the Fourteenth Amendment may
have intended, if the best interpretation of "privileges and immunities
of citizens of the United States" includes the rights enumerated
in the Bill of Rights, then the extension of the entire Bill of
Rights to cover the States is what that provision means.
And it seems to me that this is indeed the most defensible interpretation.
Where are the privileges and immunities of U.S. citizens to be found,
if not among those rights guaranteed to U.S. citizens by the Constitution?
And what could license interpreting the phrase to mean some
of those rights rather than all of them? I conclude that the Fourteenth
Amendment does extend the Fifth Amendment to govern the States,
and so that the Supreme Court would have been within its Constitutional
rights to strike down State-level legislation authorising compulsory
property transfers to private parties.
It may be objected that the process by which the Fourteenth Amendment
was originally ratified was illegitimate. That may well be so; but
from my point of view it doesn't much matter, since I think the
process by which the entire Constitution was ratified to begin with
was equally illegitimate. My present concern is with what the Constitution's
provisions mean, not with how they got into the Constitution in
the first place or whether they are there legitimately.
I shall also leave aside though it would be worth revisiting at
some point the question of whether the Fourteenth Amendment actually
affects city ordinances (New London is of course a city,
not a State) or only States, since it is only States that
are mentioned in the Amendment. In any case, on my reading the Constitution
does at least restrict the States' powers of eminent domain.
Just
Compensation, Spooner-Style
Indeed, not only does the Constitution authorise the Court to strike
down the State-level use of eminent domain for private beneficiaries,
but I will go further and say that it authorises the Court to strike
down any and all State-level use of eminent domain, even
for "public use." Why? Well, the Fifth Amendment stipulates that
private property cannot be taken for public use without just
compensation. In order to know how to apply this provision,
we need to know what "just compensation" is. But thanks to libertarian
rights theory, we do know: what justice demands when property is
sought is compensation sufficient to induce the owner to surrender
it voluntarily. Hence the Fifth Amendment, properly interpreted,
does not merely limit the exercise of eminent domain to "public
use," but forbids it entirely, by decreeing that government may
not take private property except by voluntary sale.
Of course this is not the interpretation of "just compensation"
that the authors of the Fifth Amendment intended; but then the language
of the Fifth Amendment does not say to give property owners "compensation
that we think is just." They could have written that if they
had so chosen; but instead they wrote that "just compensation"
i.e., whatever compensation is actually just is
what is required. Just as Oedipus, in decreeing that the parricide
should be exiled, was thereby unintentionally decreeing his own
exile, so the framers, in decreeing just compensation, were thereby
unintentionally forbidding eminent domain entirely. And subsequently
the authors of the Fourteenth Amendment unintentionally extended
this prohibition to cover the States.
It's important not to confuse this Spoonerite approach with the
"living Constitution" approach, in which the original meaning of
various Constitutional provisions is discarded in favour of newer
meanings that have evolved over time. On the contrary, for Spoonerites
the meaning of "just compensation" is exactly the same today as
it was 200 years ago; the word "just" invokes the objectively discoverable
nature of justice, which remains the same over time even if our
understanding of it does not.
Legal philosopher David
Lyons who, by applying the Kripke-Putnam theory of reference
to the realm of law, has developed an approach of constitutional
interpretation strikingly like Spooners, at least in structure
(not so much in content; Lyons is no libertarian) makes the point,
incidentally using the just compensation clause as his example:
Imagine that you and I disagree about the substantive requirements
of social justice. We then differ as to how the concept of justice
applies; we differ, that is, about the principles of justice.
This is possible if the concept of justice admits of different
interpretations, or competing conceptions. ... Now consider a
constitutional example. ... a court applying the just compensation
clause would not necessarily decide a case as the original authors
would have done .... Instead, a court would understand the Constitution
to mean precisely what it says and thus to require just
compensation. A court would need to defend a particular conception
of just compensation ... against the most plausible alternatives.
... Contested concepts do not seem confined to morality and law.
Their properties are at any rate similar to those of concepts
referring to natural substances or phenomena, such as water and
heat. On a plausible understanding of the development of science,
for example, the caloric and kinetic theories of heat are (or
at one time were) competing conceptions of the concept heat. ...
If, as most people would agree, 'heat' refers to a determinate
physical phenomenon, there can be, in principle, a best theory
of heat. This implies that there can be a best conception of a
contested concept. This suggests, in turn, that contested concepts
in the Constitution might have best interpretations. ... Now if
the idea that the Constitution includes contested concepts is
correct, then to apply the Constitution in terms of their best
interpretation is, in effect, to apply doctrines whose application
is called for by the original Constitution. But, just as interpretation
of the concept heat requires more than mere reflection, any interpretation
of this type inevitably draws upon resources that are neither
implicit in the text nor purely linguistic. It .... requires that
courts applying 'vague clauses' of the Constitution interpret
'contested concepts,' which requires reasoning about moral or
political principles.
(David Lyons, "Constitutional Interpretation and Original Meaning,"
pp. 8599; in Social Philosophy & Policy 4, no. 1
(Fall 1986), pp. 75101.)
This interpretation,
of course, assumes that the word "just" in "just compensation" means
what it ordinarily means: "in accordance with justice." Stephan
Kinsella, by contrast, has suggested to me that "just compensation"
is simply a technical term for paying "fair market value" (he should
probably say something like "prevailing market value," since
"fair" is going to raise the same issues that "just" does). Now
I certainly agree that what the framers intended was probably
the payment of prevailing market value; but I find it hard to believe
that the phrase "just compensation" is so far a term of art that
"just" has no independent meaning in it, just as "handle"
has no independent meaning in the phrase "fly off the handle."
Centralism
and the Constitution
How much power, on my interpretation, does the Constitution grant
the Supreme Court? On the one hand, quite a lot since the best
(i.e., the libertarian) interpretation of the Fourteenth
Amendment's guarantee of "equal protection of the laws" is going
to "enact Mr. Herbert Spencer's Social Statics" (in Justice
Holmes' famous phrase), thus authorising what I've elsewhere
called "the wholesale imposition of libertarianism by the federal
judiciary on the States." (For recent defenses of such an approach
see Randy Barnett's book Restoring
the Lost Constitution: The Presumption of Liberty and Damon
Root's article "Unleash
the Judges: The Libertarian Case for Judicial Activism.") On
the other hand, less than might appear since as I read the Constitution
it authorises secession. (According to the Tenth
Amendment, the States reserve all powers not granted; since
nowhere in the Constitution is secession forbidden, it's reasonable
to infer that secession remains a reserved power.) This converts
Constitutional guarantees of rights into something like club rules:
States are required (by the Fourteenth Amendment) to abide by them
so long as they remain within the union, but nothing forces them
to remain.
This I think was Spooner's reading also. It's often assumed that
Spooner must have undergone a radical change of mind between the
apparently centralist Unconstitutionality of Slavery (which
favours, and interprets the Constitution as authorising, a Federal
ban on slavery in the States) and the apparently decentralist Constitution
of No Authority (which defends Southern secession, and attacks
the Constitution as a pseudo-contract unjustly imposed by the Union
on the States). In fact the difference between the two works is
not so large; already in The Unconstitutionality of Slavery
Spooner appears to treat Federal jurisdiction over the States as
conditional on the Union's remaining a voluntary compact, when he
writes:
As
long as the parties acknowledge the instrument as being their
contract, they are each and all estopped by it from saying
that they have any intentions adverse to it. ... If the parties
wish to repudiate the intentions of the instrument, they must
repudiate or abolish the instrument itself.
(This doesn't
mean that Spooner thought that slavery should be left undisturbed
once a slave state has seceded; on the contrary, he advocated guerilla
warfare against slaveholders.) And in The Constitution of
No Authority Spooner is careful to explain
that what he is attacking is the Constitution "not as I interpret
it, but as it is interpreted by those who pretend to administer
it," adding
that in his view "the Constitution is no such instrument as it has
generally been assumed to be; but that by false interpretations,
and naked usurpations, the government has been made in practice
a very widely, and almost wholly, different thing from what the
Constitution itself purports to authorize." In short, Spooner's
position in both works is that the Constitution, properly interpreted,
is a voluntary compact that mandates respect for libertarian rights
but allows secession. (If there is a change of mind between the
two works, it concerns not the interpretation of the Constitution,
but rather the value, as a political strategy, of continuing to
appeal to the Constitution: even if the Constitution has not "authorized
such a government as we have had," Spooner finally concludes, it
has at least proved "powerless to prevent it," and so is "unfit
to exist.")
Federalism:
For and Against
Whatever the Constitution, properly interpreted, has to say about
federalism, we still need to address the distinct question
of what it ought to say about federalism. (Even though interpreting
certain contested phrases in the Constitution requires drawing on
the correct libertarian theory of justice, that does not imply that
the best interpretation of the Constitution will inevitably be the
most libertarian one. There just isn't any way, for example, to
interpret such provisions as "Congress shall have power to lay and
collect taxes, duties, imposts, and excises" (Article
I, Section 8) in a manner consistent with correct libertarian
justice; the best interpretation of the word "taxes" is not "voluntary
contributions." Of course, one might interpret the Fifth Amendment's
just compensation clause as superseding this provision and annulling
the taxing power; since it's an amendment it automatically
takes precedence over anything in the original document. Sadly,
the Fifth Amendment, construed as a ban on taxation, is itself thus
far amended by the Sixteenth.)
On this issue, I am opposed to giving the Federal government the
power to impose libertarian standards on the States, for the same
reasons that I would oppose giving the United Nations the power
to impose libertarian standards on the U.S. This is not because
I think federalism takes precedence over individual rights, but
rather because I think federalism is a better long-run strategy
for protecting individual rights. As Isabel
Paterson notes in God
of the Machine: "The proper use of a necessary power and
the proper agency for its use are entirely different questions."
Now I would not oppose giving either the U.S. or the U.N.
the power to impose libertarian standards on its members if
this power could be guaranteed to be exercised in a reliably libertarian
manner in actual practice; but what guarantees this? The power to
impose libertarian standards is also the power to impose non-libertarian
standards; as Barry Goldwater (or perhaps Karl Hess) famously remarked,
"A government that is big enough to give you everything you want
is big enough to take it all away."
In
any federal system, it is to be expected that at some times, or
on some issues, the central government will be more libertarian
than the member states, and that at other times, or on other issues,
the member states will be more libertarian than the central government.
If the central government could be counted on to be consistently
more libertarian than the member states, then obviously the central
government should have the power to strike down local legislation.
If the member states could be counted on to be consistently more
libertarian than the central government, then obviously the central
government should not have the power to strike down local
legislation. But in reality it's inevitably going to be some of
each; and there's no way to rig the system so that the central government
wins whenever it's right and loses whenever it's wrong. (One can
of course write into the Constitution some such provision as "the
central government shall have the power to strike down unjust legislation,
and no power to strike down legislation that is just"; but such
paper guarantees are of limited utility when the agency that has
to obey them is the same agency that gets to interpret them.)
Since neither the central government nor the member states can be
counted on to be consistently libertarian, I favour decentralisation
simply because it allows for more competition: if Alabama passes
a crummy law there's the hope that I can move to some other State
with better laws, whereas if the Federal judiciary imposes a crummy
decision on the entire country then my ability to vote with my feet
is much weaker. This is ultimately a reason for decoupling
jurisdiction from geographical territory entirely; but, short
of that, it's at least a reason for confining decision-making power
to the local level as far as possible. This is especially true if
member states are denied the right to secede; but I think centralisation
has its dangers even when secession is permitted, at least if the
right of secession is limited to states rather than being extended
(as ideally it should be) to individuals. (Even when the government
of a member state consents to Federal requirements, that does not
mean that all its citizens do.)
Hence I conclude that the Constitution, correctly interpreted, is
more centralist than it should be. If the Fourteenth Amendment were
being proposed today, I would not favour its adoption. Indeed, if
the Constitution itself, with or without the Fourteenth Amendment,
were being proposed today, I would not favour it; I would prefer
the more decentralised Articles
of Confederation (or better yet, market
anarchy, but the Articles would be a good start).
So as a matter of general policy the Federal government ought to
follow a hands-off policy toward State-level legislation. And in
a world where federalism reigned as it should a world in which
libertarian activists could concentrate their energy at the local
level the Supreme Court would quite properly have refused to strike
down local eminent-domain legislation.
In the actual world, however, where federalism does not remotely
reign as it should, it is by no means clear that refusing to strike
down local legislation is the decision we should hope for. If refusing
to strike down the New London statute were the inauguration of a
consistent decentralist policy, that would be one thing; but the
Supreme Court has shown no such inclination in that direction. We've
seen recently in last month's Raich v. Ashcroft, for example
that the Court is perfectly happy to override State-level legislation
(and fairly libertarian legislation, at that) when it so chooses.
So the price of the Court's decision in Kelo an increase
in rights-violations, human suffering, and disruptions of people's
lives through increased use of eminent domain is not, so far as
I can see, compensated by any significant gain in decentralisation.
As I have written elsewhere:
[I]t is an anachronism to think of our State governments as in
any serious sense counterweights to Federal tyranny. While Federal
and State governments may clash from time to time ... for the
most part the State and Federal governments are entwined into
a single criminal organisation that oppresses us. The States
have become more akin to administrative departments within the
Federal government than independent agents affiliated with it;
the Federal government so regularly overrides the States that
this latest issue is only a tiny drop in an enormous bucket. As
a result, I'm more inclined to throw my strategic support to whichever
head of the hydra is supporting the less oppressive policy on
any given issue.
In other words,
now that the States no longer exist as independent political entities
but have essentially been absorbed into the Central Leviathan, the
question at issue in Kelo was basically whether branch A
of the Central Leviathan should prevent branch B of the Central
Leviathan from violating property rights. Under those circumstances,
I'm inclined to answer yes.
So while I support decentralisation (and would prefer complete disunion),
so long as the States show so little tendency even to seek
greater independence but instead waddle eagerly to the Federal trough,
I favour strategic support for the Bill of Rights, whether at the
State or the Federal level.
So there's my position: a "centralist" (though secessionist) interpretation
of the Constitution, a "decentralist" prescription for general Supreme
Court policy, and a "centralist" (though still secessionist) prescription
for what Supreme Court decisions we should support under current
conditions.
July
8, 2005
Roderick
T. Long [send him mail]
is Associate Professor of Philosophy at Auburn
University; Editor of the Journal
of Libertarian Studies; President of the Molinari
Institute; Adjunct Scholar of the Ludwig
von Mises Institute; and author of Reason
and Value: Aristotle versus Rand. He received his Ph.D. from
Cornell in 1992, and maintains the website Praxeology.net,
as well as the web journal Austro-Athenian
Empire.
Copyright
© 2005 LewRockwell.com
Roderick
T. Long Archives
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