Did
World War II Have To Happen?
by
Patrick
J. Buchanan
by
Patrick J. Buchanan
Recently by Patrick J. Buchanan: Populist
Right Rising
On Sept. 1,
1939, 70 years ago, the German Army crossed the Polish frontier.
On Sept. 3, Britain declared war.
Six years
later, 50 million Christians and Jews had perished. Britain was
broken and bankrupt, Germany a smoldering ruin. Europe had served
as the site of the most murderous combat known to man, and civilians
had suffered worse horrors than the soldiers.
By May
1945, Red Army hordes occupied all the great capitals of Central
Europe: Vienna, Prague, Budapest, Berlin. A hundred million Christians
were under the heel of the most barbarous tyranny in history: the
Bolshevik regime of the greatest terrorist of them all, Joseph Stalin.
What cause
could justify such sacrifices?
The German-Polish
war had come out of a quarrel over a town the size of Ocean City,
Md., in summer. Danzig, 95 percent German, had been severed from
Germany at Versailles in violation of Woodrow Wilson's principle
of self-determination. Even British leaders thought Danzig should
be returned.
Why did
Warsaw not negotiate with Berlin, which was hinting at an offer
of compensatory territory in Slovakia? Because the Poles had a war
guarantee from Britain that, should Germany attack, Britain and
her empire would come to Poland's rescue.
But why
would Britain hand an unsolicited war guarantee to a junta of Polish
colonels, giving them the power to drag Britain into a second war
with the most powerful nation in Europe?
Was Danzig
worth a war? Unlike the 7 million Hong Kongese whom the British
surrendered to Beijing, who didn't want to go, the Danzigers were
clamoring to return to Germany.
Comes the
response: The war guarantee was not about Danzig, or even about
Poland. It was about the moral and strategic imperative "to stop
Hitler" after he showed, by tearing up the Munich pact and Czechoslovakia
with it, that he was out to conquer the world. And this Nazi beast
could not be allowed to do that.
If true,
a fair point. Americans, after all, were prepared to use atom bombs
to keep the Red Army from the Channel. But where is the evidence
that Adolf Hitler, whose victims as of March 1939 were a fraction
of Gen. Pinochet's, or Fidel Castro's, was out to conquer the world?
After Munich
in 1938, Czechoslovakia did indeed crumble and come apart. Yet consider
what became of its parts.
The
Sudeten Germans were returned to German rule, as they wished. Poland
had annexed the tiny disputed region of Teschen, where thousands
of Poles lived. Hungary's ancestral lands in the south of Slovakia
had been returned to her. The Slovaks had their full independence
guaranteed by Germany. As for the Czechs, they came to Berlin for
the same deal as the Slovaks, but Hitler insisted they accept a
protectorate.
Now one
may despise what was done, but how did this partition of Czechoslovakia
manifest a Hitlerian drive for world conquest?
Comes the
reply: If Britain had not given the war guarantee and gone to war,
after Czechoslovakia would have come Poland's turn, then Russia's,
then France's, then Britain's, then the United States.
We would
all be speaking German now.
But if
Hitler was out to conquer the world Britain, Africa, the Middle
East, the United States, Canada, South America, India, Asia, Australia
why did he spend three years building that hugely expensive Siegfried
Line to protect Germany from France? Why did he start the war with
no surface fleet, no troop transports and only 29 oceangoing submarines?
How do you conquer the world with a navy that can't get out of the
Baltic Sea?
If Hitler
wanted the world, why did he not build strategic bombers, instead
of two-engine Dorniers and Heinkels that could not even reach Britain
from Germany?
Why did
he let the British army go at Dunkirk?
Why did
he offer the British peace, twice, after Poland fell, and again
after France fell?
Why, when Paris
fell, did Hitler not demand the French fleet, as the Allies demanded
and got the Kaiser's fleet? Why did he not demand bases in French-controlled
Syria to attack Suez? Why did he beg Benito Mussolini not to attack
Greece?
Because
Hitler wanted to end the war in 1940, almost two years before the
trains began to roll to the camps.
Hitler
had never wanted war with Poland, but an alliance with Poland such
as he had with Francisco Franco's Spain, Mussolini's Italy, Miklos
Horthy's Hungary and Father Jozef Tiso's Slovakia.
Indeed,
why would he want war when, by 1939, he was surrounded by allied,
friendly or neutral neighbors, save France. And he had written off
Alsace, because reconquering Alsace meant war with France, and that
meant war with Britain, whose empire he admired and whom he had
always sought as an ally.
As of March
1939, Hitler did not even have a border with Russia. How then could
he invade Russia?
Winston
Churchill was right when he called it "The Unnecessary War" the
war that may yet prove the mortal blow to our civilization.
September
2, 2009
Patrick
J. Buchanan [send
him mail] is co-founder and editor of The
American Conservative. He is also the author of seven books,
including Where
the Right Went Wrong, and A
Republic Not An Empire. His latest book is Churchill,
Hitler, and the Unnecessary War.
Copyright
© 2009 Creators Syndicate
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